This is only a side project of mine, so I cannot spend to much time on it. The current result in a very alpha'isch state.
1 Macc 2:1:
John 8:33 Why does Jesus not correct the Jews when they said they they were never slaves of anyone?
1 Macc 2:7:
In John 3:16 in what way did God δίδωμι ("give") his only begotten son?
1 Macc 2:9:
In 1 John 2:3, is εν τούτῳ ("by this") an instrumental dative or locative dative?
1 Macc 2:12:
Romans 2:12-16 Pagan Gentiles or Christian Gentiles
1 Macc 2:14:
What is "sackcloth" in Revelation 11:3?
1 Macc 2:27:
Does Romans 3:31 refer to the Law or the law?
1 Macc 2:28-29:
What time period did Hebrews 11:37-38 refer to?
1 Macc 2:38:
Does it follow from Matthew 10:28 that the soul remains alive (i.e. conscious) after physical death?
A living soul cannot exist without a body (Gen 2:7; 1 Cor 15:44-45) but killing the body doesn't kill the soul (Matt 10:28). Is this a contradiction?
What is the significance that the word Sabbath is often plural?
1 Macc 2:52:
Did Paul contradict himself on the works/faith dichotomy? (Romans 2:6-7 vs 4:4-5)
1 Macc 2:62:
In Galatians 2:11-13 why does Peter fear the Jewish believers?
1 Macc 2:66:
What is the most accurate way to translate "ἐκ" in 1 Cor 11:28?
See also 1 Macc